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**Asshole** · 09-26-2011, 06:34 AM

what is the difference?

**Djoser** · 09-26-2011, 06:52 AM

What isn't the difference?

They're all really similar with some from of elite ruling over the land.

**Fuzzly Bear** · (This post was last modified: 09-26-2011 07:10 AM by Fuzzly Bear.)

not much
rule of the best/rule of the few/rule of the rich

ever heard of google btw

**ClichéGuevara** · 09-26-2011, 07:30 AM

Spelling.

**1871** · (This post was last modified: 09-26-2011 09:32 AM by 1871.)

The aristocracy were different from the mercantile class who also constiitued the oligarchy so to understand the nature of the plutocracy and how these factions fought to gain power and form alligiances (and the class system) its necessary to understand the differences.

**Asshole** · 09-26-2011, 08:12 PM

thanks hamish really cleared that up

**Fuzzly Bear** · 10-01-2011, 06:47 AM

are you being sarcastic cunt?
i'll bite your face

**1871** · (This post was last modified: 10-01-2011 10:57 AM by 1871.)

the difference is that although they are all bastards they maintain and consolidate powers in different ways (like comparing the church with the police for example) They also arise out of different historical circumstances. The power of the aristocracy wanes throughout the 19th/20th century as the rise of corporate and mercantile/entrepreneurial power gains ascendancy n before those centuries) and so US oligarchs are not arostocrats in the European sense tho as they build up their empires they like the idea of that absolute power no doubt.

**Asshole** · (This post was last modified: 10-01-2011 04:35 PM by Asshole.)

(10-01-2011 06:47 AM)HamishFTW Wrote: are you being sarcastic cunt?
i'll bite your face

actually no. i just wanted a short answer like that that i couldn't find on the googles

can you compare and contrast each individually 1871?

**Fuzzly Bear** · 10-02-2011, 07:40 AM

lol klkl